How does CPF absorb excess liquidity in the housing market, if it (the CPF) can be used for housing? Please elaborate instead of throwing terms in the air so that there is no room for doubt as to what you mean.
Andrew started off by proclaiming that CPF was a tool that made the housing market overfired:
I asked him what he meant, and he replied:
I am still trying to understand how the second post leads to the first. Yes, definitely demand will go up when people have the means, but removal of the CPF and placing that as cash in people's hands ONLY leads to the scenario he describes if people do not have demand for houses. That seems to assume rather erroneously that the demand for houses today depends heavily on the presence of the CPF. Or perhaps you can explain what you think he means in another way?
I would like to stress that the method I proposed in my last post, if you HAD bothered to read it properly, was deliberately ludicrous and isn't something that I propose any government should adopt. Or did you miss "based on your (Andrew) logic"? :dunno: